Three years ago my ex-wife and I were divorced after 21 years of marriage. In the divorce decree, I was awarded possesion of the residence and had ten years to sell it. Yes, that was not a typo, 10 years. Anyway, several months after the divorce was final, she wanted me to take the equity out of the house and split it with her.
At the advise of a friend of mine, was told that she should sign a quitclaim deed before she received any cash. At first she refused to sign, but I later found out why she eventually did.
The house was refinanced in my name only, her name no longer on the deed or mortgage.
Long story short here, I sold the house a year ago and made a good profit. She seems to think that she is entitled to some of it since I got more than she thought I would.
She has retained an attorney and is petitioning the court to see things her way.
Is there a chance that a notarized quitclaim that was executed well after the final divorce decree can not be viewed as a modification to the final decree? I am far from being a "Perry Mason" here, but if any of you have had a quitclaim challenged or thrown out in court, I would love to hear about how and why. Any advice, any comments... all are welcome. My court date is the first week in Nov. 2006.
It just seems to me that since she has been paid for her interest in the house.. signed for and received cash for said interest, how is it that an attorney can see more money in it for her???
Stumpped in Tennessee...

