what I see in your post:
you loaned the guy money. There is no contract or agreement that you would be an owner of the property. He has transferred the house (possible illegally) to attempt to shield it from creditors (with the possibility that action may not work anyway).
So, did you loan the money to the friend or did you pay it to the closing agent, seller, or some other party involved with the purchase of the house that would show the money was in fact intended to result in an equitable interest in the property?
If all you have is that you loaned money to a friend, if you can actually prove that, you will likely be able to obtain a judgment for that should you sue your friend. Then all you have to do is collect on that judgment. Sure hope he doesn't file bankruptcy because of the results of the suit he is engaged in.

