My question involves landlord-tenant law in the State of: TEXAS
We lived in a house for two and a half years. We broke the lease six months before the lease ended because of a job relocation out of state and agreed to pay rent until another tenant was found and keep all utilities in our name until such as the lease indicated. But the owner of the home (we deal with a property management company, not the owner directly) decided instead of seeking another tenant to lease the home to sell the home. There was a "For Sale" sign in the front yard before we moved. We were told we were not responsible for rent as the lease does not give any indication as to what we are responsible for if the owner decided to sell and were actually undecided on what to charge us as a "break the lease fee" since all in our lease indicated what they are to do until landlord finds another tenant. We were told that we were not obligated to continue to pay rent as the owner decided to sell the home and not find a "replacement tenant". We kept the utilities in our name for three weeks after we told them we would be out of the home but then removed the utilities from our name. The only thing in our lease that it says about utilities being left in our name through the duration of the lease is this:
"Tenant will be liable for . . . Landlords cost of reletting the property including but not limited to leasing fees, advertising fees, utility charges, and other fees reasonably necessary to relet the Property."
They are not reletting the property. They are selling. Are we obligated by law to keep the utilities in our name while they are selling the property?