My question involves real estate located in the State of: CA
Can a written agreement between the owner of the property and a resident stating earnings from working would be allocated towards taxes on the property as a condition to live there be enough to prove the resident paid the taxes on the property?
This agreement was written in 2001.
Considering all other criteria are satisfiable for adverse possession...
There is a default recorded on the property and a trustee sale listed prior to a short sale, but without a sale and the short sale option has expired. Apparently the property is said to be pending auction, but the owner is still the recorded owner.
What needs to be done if resident is claiming adverse possession? Who do they notify to stop the auction?
It's to my understanding (correct this if it's wrong) that since the owner was still the recorded owner as of the date resident can claim adverse possession, then the claim should be valid.

