Can anyone shed some light on this situation? I signed a 1 year lease several years ago for an apt in NYC. The lease expired without me or the landlord attempting to renew it, and I've continued paying the lease amount of rent since then with no comment from the landlord. I assumed this made me a month to month tenant and that either of us could terminate on 30 days notice. However, now that I've given 30 days notice, the landlord is saying that I'm required to give 60 days because the original lease said that (which, looking back at it now, it does indeed say). Do the original lease terms still apply even though it's been expired for several years now?

Many thanks!