I sold a couple properties to a person.

I lowered the price on one and raised the price on another to avoid some capital gains tax and to make zoning changes cheaper in taxes.

Now I am faced with foreclosing on the buyers because they claim they can't a loan because the price was adjusted higher (even though it was lowered on the other property).

Does this have a legal basis in court?

Can the foreclosure be ruled illegitimate because of this price adjustment?

I hope I'm explaining this well. Please ask any questions for clarification.