My question involves criminal law for the state of: Oklahoma
Situation: I was in a Mexican Food establishment and had one margarita while eating. I noticed a police officer in the office and occassionally he spoke on the radio mounted to his shirt. I learned later that he was reviewing patrons tabs to determine if they were drinking. I finish my dinner and walked out to my car. A different police officer approached me in the parking lot and asked me if I was going to drive myself home. I noticed that another patron across the lot was being handcuffed. Rather than go any farther I decided to go back into the restaurant where the waitress approached me and said the officer inside was checking receipts for alcohol and arresting people for PI. I never raised my voice inside or outside. I ate alone, walked out alone and did not stumble or act in any way that would indicate I was drunk. I wasn't drunk. I had not been drinking prior to dinner. I was well within my faculties to drive. However, the officer in the parking lot became beligerant, raised his voice and accused me of lying to him. I wasn't lying, I just changed my mind about driving given the circumstances. I wound up calling my sister to come pick me up because after 30 minutes the police left the parking lot but one parked across the street in the blind. I don't know what would have happened if I had driven. The patron being arrested did not appear to be non-compliant or drunk. I'm puzzled why the officer did not arrest me since it seemed they were arresting anyone who had been drinking. My question is: Is it legal for police to question the restaurant in order to determine if patrons have been drinking (albeit only one drink in my case) and can they use that info as probable cause to arrest me for public intoxication when my demeanor would not have indicated I was drunk?

