My husband received a collection notice from an agency that bought an old debt--from 1987! When I called the agency, I told them he never received any notices from other credit collections agencies in regard to this balance. My question is this: shouldn't this be covered under the statute of limitations, and what do we need to do to prove it (if anything) and protect his credit? I did bring up the limitations law to the agency, and they said there "is no limit". Any advise is obviously much appreciated.