So you're stating that your lawyer drafted language in relation to the marital home which you believed caused your ex-wife to be solely responsible for any deficiency at the time of the sale of the home, but which would allow you to receive half of any equity, your ex-wife argued in court that she interpreted the language differently and would not have agreed to a settlement that put the entire risk of loss onto her, and the judge found that your wife's interpretation was more consistent with the language than was yours?
What's the exact language we're talking about - quote it.

