I have read up more on the precedents regarding the ability,willingness,and readiness issue specifically with respect to the California Supreme Court's decision in Sanchez v. CUIAB, 1977. In this opinion it seems that the central issue is not whether a claimant is physically available to work at a particular moment in time, but is whether or not a claimant is effectively "attached to the work force".
What I would like to know is if, according to precedent, being unavailable for less than one day's travel time at any given moment, effectively renders someone as "detached from the work force". Obviously it makes someone unavailable for that particular day, but it doesn't remove someone from being an able and willing participant in the labor force any more than another claimant who is simply sick for a day. Taken in this context I don't believe that being overseas constitutes an unavailability for work in the context of the California Supreme Court precedent. I realize that the simpleton's answer might be, "If you are overseas, you are not available for work"; however, I believe the legal question is larger than that, and that it is centered around the idea of being "attached to the workforce". It seems to me that if a claimant is actively seeking work through online applications overseas, the fact that they would require a day's travel time to potentially start new employment or attend an interview would not effectively discourage a serious employer from considering them for employment; thus this condition of being overseas wouldn't materially affect a claimant's "attachment to the workforce". If someone with expertise in this matter would weigh in, it would be greatly appreciated.



