With the court overturning Prop 8 in CA, I'm wondering about the legal grounds for "Gay Marriage". Gay right proponents contend it's a "civl rights" issue where society cannot impose it's own biased views.
I was listening to Christ Matthews on MSNBC "Hard Ball", and he added reasons of "the time has come into the 21st century", and the "sky would not fall allowing Gay Marriage".
There's a co-worker of mine, a gay rights supporter, who disagress with my view that "Judeo Christen" society has set the norm at one man one women. I have no problems with society setting certain boundaries, and I have no problems with the newer "civil union" either.
Then recently, this same co-worker said she spoke to an older Chinese gentlemen at our senior center. and from what she could gather, sounded like his dad had two wives. She said she's confused and asked me if she heard it wrong, or if he meant his dad married twice.
I said he meant he had two wives at the same time, and I also said my grandpa had 2 wives at the same time, back in the 1930's. In China, the first wife is called the "big wife", and the others after that is called 2nd wife, third wife etc.
She expressed shock, but I reminded her that I couldn't understand why she think gay marriage is OK, it's a civil rights issue, why then a man can't take a second wife on "civil rights" grounds. In China, and in Muslum societies, they had polygamy for thousand of years, and the sky hasn't fallen yet. In fact, more than one wife had been the norm in many societies.
So if society decides that it's no longer ONE man ONE women, it can be ONE MAN -ONE MAN, or ONE WOMEN-ONE WOMEN, then what is so sacred about the number "ONE"??
Maybe somebody can tell me I am if society here isn't enlightened enough yet to move further, or is it still burdened by the notion that marriage is still "one of something" to "one".
And bigamy is still a crime, as was homosexuality and interracial marriage not that many years ago. Am I missing something??