This is in New York State. In 1969, the frontage part of a 6.5 acre parcel of land(property A) was sold with a 15 ft ingress/egress easement along the one end of the property to the landlocked parcel(property B) in the rear. The stipulation in the deed is that the easement will cease to exist if some other public access is created to the lanlocked rear parcel.
In the year 2000, the property next door to parcel A, which borders on the easement(property C) was purchased by a new owner. Property B connects and is to the rear of Property C, just as it connects and is to the rear of property A.
Subsequently, the individual,(owner of propery C), purchased property B. I believe, but am not absolutely sure, that he recombined and had them deeded as one property(property BC). In 2005, another individual purchased property BC.
Since the original purpose of the easement was access to the landlocked parcel of land B, and it is no longer landlocked, does the owner of propery BC still have the right to use the easement to access the old parcel B since it is more convenient for him than driving directly from old property C to old parcel B which I believe are no longer two different properties but the same property which he now owns.
I suspect that even though B is no longer landlocked,( C being a property with street frontage and with the same owner), the issue of whether they are still separate or now one property is pertinent. Therefore I will have to confirm this if it is indeed pertinent.
Is this something that is very clearly covered in the law, or would I need to retain an attorney if I wished to have the easement revoked on the grounds that the condition for its being granted no longer exists.