My question involves landlord-tenant law in the State of: CA
The residential manager of my complex says that it is the owner's policy to not sublease. But the the lease say:
Resident shall not sublease any part of the premises or assign this agreement without the prior written consent of owner, Any such action, without prior written consent, is void.
Is this misrepresentation, if their policy is not to sublease at all. I don't even get a change to get consent from the owner.