I said "evidently" because the "evidence" at hand shows it was sold (parcel map from tax office). As to why we bought a piece of landlocked property, you would have to take that up with my husband, who bought the parcel sans an attorney, as I was thousands of miles away at the time, and had not seen the property. Neither of these facts, however, has anything to do with my question, which was, basically: does a mutually respected, but unofficial easement, over decades of use, by numerous public and private parties, become an implied easement?

Now, had I been looking for an answer such as the one you gave, I would simply have asked: Did hubby screw the pooch here by taking the kind, elderly owner at her word that there was access to the parcel?