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Kraft is alleged to have entered an establishment which from all outward appearances is a massage spa (or parlor). Kraft allegedly went inside the lobby area and paid an amount of somewhere from $59 to $79 at the reception area. He was then led to a room where a woman came in and stimulated his genitals. He then gave the woman some money and left the premises.

I could be wrong, but it doesn't seem like he solicited prostitution. If he was paying for a massage, and they instead provided stimulation of his genitals - without him ever asking for anything special - after which he gave them money, how does that constitute solicitation of anything?
I wasn't present and assume you weren't either. I haven't read the police report or spoken to any witnesses. Maybe you have. Regardless, I don't care to play "what if" games. Law enforcement obviously felt that probable cause for an arrest existed. Whether there's enough evidence for a conviction remains to be seen.


Quote Quoting Vermont3
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Doesn't there have to be a clear request of sex in exchange for money for it to constitute solicitation?
Feel free to read the applicable law.


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If the police had enough to get a court order to install cameras inside the spa, then wouldn't that be enough for them to have the authority as well as the duty to at least temporarily shut the place down?
The authority? Probably? The duty? No, and it would be particularly silly to shut down the operation if the goal were to conduct a sting operation.


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So by not shutting it down when they had sufficient reason . . . to do so, haven't they committed entrapment?
No. Do you think that meets the definition you quoted (or the definition provided in "flyingron's" response)? How could law enforcement induce a person with whom they had absolutely no contact whatsoever?


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When one enters an establishment of that type, wouldn't there be a reasonable expectation of privacy? Is it actually legal for the police to place cameras inside a place of that type without posting a notice?
Yes to both questions, and requiring law enforcement to "post[] a notice" would be patently silly since it would completely defeat the purpose.


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Finally, if a third party forces a woman to have sex with a man against her will, the man is not told she is being forced and she acts as if it is consensual, how could the man she has sex with be charged with having non-consensual sex?
Perhaps the person filing the charges doesn't know all of the relevant facts.