My question involves a foreclosure in the State of: CA
Purchased an "owner occupied" large home late 2005 in CA with purchase-money loans; fixed 1st and HELOC 2nd. Could not continue making big payments by mid 2006, due to unexpected medical retirement so leased it as a senior assisted living home. Now that leasor's business has declined and he is unable to make payments with home soon to be vacant. Jan/09 1st & HELOC 2nd payment not made. Will I be able to foreclose as "owner occupied" even though I don't live in the home now! What will Countrywide require...do I need an attorney?