[wantjustice]

Under Ky the law reads:

Ky. Rev. Stat. Ann. § 526.010: It is a felony to overhear or record, through use of an electronic or mechanical device, a wire or oral communication without the consent of at least one party to that communication. Ky. Rev. Stat. Ann. § 526.020.

Does that mean, that since my huband is recording the conversation (and of course he consents to it) that it is not against the law to record it since atleast one person consents to it(him)

or,

that since he is doing the recording, that she has to consent to it,

if it's the latter

does that mean that I could record the conversation between them two, and it wouldn't be against the law since I'm recording and my husband consents to it??

any help would be greatly appreciated. We don't want to do anything against the law, however the other parent can't act like an adult and a.) work things out like a civilized person and b.) stop making up lies

[aaron]

Laws requiring the consent of one party are ordinarily construed to mean that a party to the conversation may record it, even if other parties are not aware that a recording is being made. The result would be absurd if such a statute were interpreted to permit a third party to make a recording with the consent of a participant, but to prohibit the very same recording to be made by the participant.