It's been awhile since my last posting on this fine forum.
I'm very concerned about a matter, and hopefully, someone can help me.
I'll be as brief as possible!
I have a friend who is seeing a male individual who is currently married. This male is living in a house currently owned, according to county records -- I have copies of the deed, tax accessor info, everything filed for this home -- by his wife and her mother (50/50). The mother's share was recently put into a family trust. This male individual claims to my female friend that 50 percent of the home was given to him last year. Is this doubtful, considering nothing is showing up at the recorder's office showing this male owning any percentage of the property? In addition, this male signed what amounted to a quit claim 5 years ago, of which I have a copy, disclaiming all interest in the property, signing it over to the wife/her mother when the home was transferred from the builder.
Also, this male individual claims to be refinancing for a larger loan to pay off bills, using his income on the application. The wife does not work. How can this be possible given this male individual is nowhere on the current deed?
Furthermore, this male claims that certain docs haven't been filed with the county, and that he claims to have them in his possession. Is this even possible?
Finally, this male claims to be making the mortgage payments and that this proves he has interest in the property.
I understand this is a bit confusing, but my intuition is telling me this male individual is not being honest.