Spouse's Interest in Real Estate Owned Before Marriage

**dotso59614** · 11-24-2007, 09:18 PM

I live in Missouri.

I had bought a house and 3 years later got married. After 4 weeks the guy turned out to be a monster (and I turned out to be 4 weeks pregnant). I wanted to sell the house so I could pay off some debt and deal with not being able to work due to a very difficult pregnancy.

I was told by the real estate agents that I could not sell the house without my husbands signature EVEN THOUGH I had it long before marrying him.

I was told be an attorney that it was considered SEPERATE property since I owned it before marrying.

(I never did add his name to the deed and the house is still in my maiden name)

Can anyone clarify this for me?????

Also, if I cannot buy or sell real estate without his signature will a "quit claim" take care of this?

If so what do I need to do. I bought the form just in case, I just don't understand how they work and the verbage ie. grantee vs grantor etc.

Please help.

**aaron** · 11-25-2007, 06:38 AM

Are you now divorced?

**dotso59614** · 11-25-2007, 01:06 PM

Quoting aaron

Are you now divorced?

No, in Missouri you can't divorce while you're pregnant and since have been reliant upon his financial help.

I want to do a real estate deal so I can finalize the divorce.

It's a catch 22.......I can't get a deal without him being involved and I can't get out of the marriage until I can do a deal or refinance MY house.