I bought a vehicle from a major company dealership located in CA in Nov of 2011. I went a few days ago to a dealership in TX to trade the vehicle in on something bigger and was told the car has previous frame damage and could not be traded. The dealership in CA did not disclose this information to me in writing or verbally. I still have all the original paperwork that was filled out when I bought the car and it is not disclosed ANYWHERE in the paperwork. The salesman at the TX dealership told me by law the dealership in CA that sold me the car has to buy the car back from me. Is this true? Do I have a case against the dealership if I get an attorney?