My question involves a mortgage in the state of: CA
A property foreclosed on in 2011 by the 1st mortgage holder.
The 2nd mortgage received no money from the subsequent court house steps sale of the property.
The 2nd mortgage is attempting to collect.
The 2nd mortgage was a rate and term refi of a rate and term refi of a purchase money mortgage.
a) Is there liability for any of the 2nd mortgage outstanding balance?
b) If the 2nd mortgage had been a partial cash out (on the first rate and term refi), does that change the recourse for the 2nd?
c) If the property was primary residency when purchased and all loans executed, but had been a rental for two years prior to the foreclosure, does that make a difference?