Strip of Land Taken by Adverse Possession Not in Deed to Next Owner of Property

[gwlaw99]

My question involves real estate located in the State of: Maryland.

Here is my question Owner of property A takes property B (a small strip of land bordering property A) by adverse possession. If the owner of property A sells property A to a buyer, but does not include property B in the deed, is property B automatically included in the sale along with property A? FYI, no owner of property A has ever paid taxes on property B.

[flyingron]

If they've already successfully won the adverse possession in court, then yes that ownership is now transferable. Whether the acquired property gets added to the existing lot or becomes a separate deeded property depends on the situation.

If he is just in the possessing the property in an open, notorious, and hostile manner and hasn't yet gotten title in court, a new owner does not get credit usually for the previous possessive use.

If we're still talking about the alley from your other thread, you should continue the discussion there so people know the context of the question.