I recently learned that the house I rent has been foreclosed on but has not yet been auctioned. It has been on the market at different times over the past year, before I moved in a few months ago, but it never sold. My landlord informed me before I rented of the intention to sell it in the Spring/Summer and I expressed an interest in buying it if I was able to get the needed financing.
Over the past couple of months, we've engaged in a series of phone and email exchanges specific to me buying, and I recently expressed my intention to make a formal offer to buy. I began working on obtaining financing, and learned from two different lenders that the house was foreclosured on but not yet auctioned. I wasn't surprised because I the landlord hasn't significant past due balances on the utilities, and hasn't paid the property tax for a year. I was told that not only was the house foreclosed on, but also the landlord borrowed against the house to finance another property. I'm not sure if that means there is a financial obligation to more than one lender.
I understand that the landlord can still buy the house back until it has been auctioned.
1) Do I still pay rent to the landlord, or should I be paying the forecloser?
2) Will foreclosers disclose when they plan to auction the property?
3) Being on a month-to-month lease as of next month, does the forecloser have a legal right to force me to move within a certain period of time?
4) Can I offer to buy the house directly from the forecloser?
5) In DC, where I live, by law renters must be given the "right of first refusal" to buy the property when a landlord decides to sell. Does this apply in the case of a foreclosure?
6) I'm also a bit intimidated by the landlord who continues to insist that the house hasn't been foreclosed on, but won't provide any details to explain what is going on. I'm not used to such bold dishonesty in business arrangements, and irresponsible property management.
Any guidance will be appreciated.